I'm studying the divisibility properties in ℤ, there's a passage in my manual I find difficult to grasp. I don't understand why it is consequent that $d_1$ divides $d_2$ in the following statement:
Let $d_1 = \gcd(b, c)$ and $d_2 = \gcd(ab, c)$. Now $d_1 = \gcd(b, c)$ ⇒[($d_1$ divides $b$) and ($d_1$ divides $c$)]. Consequently, $d_1$ divides $ab$, and so it follows that $d_1$ divides $d_2$.
Couldn't be $d_1$ greater than $d_2$, so that it cannot divide $d_2$?
$d_2$ is GCD of $(ab,c)$ which means it is the greatest among all the numbers that divide both ab and c. Since $d_1$ is one such number dividing both ab and c, hence, $d_1\leq d_2$.