If you have two different common divisors in an integral domain that is not a multiple of each other, is the gcd then equal to the divisor that has the largest norm?
2026-03-27 00:55:16.1774572916
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GCD in Gaussian integers.
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In a domain, gcds, if they exist, are unique only up to associateness, i.e. up to a unit multiple. If we wish the gcd to be unique we must choose a unique representative from each associate equivalence class - sometimes called unit normal representatives (esp. in computational algebra).
For example in $\,\Bbb Z$ we may unit normalize gcds by choosing reps $\ge 0$ and in $\,k[x]\,$ we may choose monic reps. You can find literature about algorithms for such by searching on "unit normal gcd".
See this answer for further discussion of such unit normalization.
No, it is not (assuming usual definitions). Indeed, the definition of greatest common divisor is as follows (quoted from Greatest Common Divisor on Wikipedia):
Thus, in your situation one would say that the elements do not admit a greatest common divisor.
Indeed, there is a specific name for domains where each couple of (non-zero) elements admits a greatest common divisor, these domains are called GCD-domains. Important classes of GCD-domains are UFDs and Bézout domains (i.e., domains where each finitely generated ideal is principal).
(I am a bit puzzled why you mention Gaussian integers, since in fact in the Gaussian integers your situation will never arise, as they are a prinipal ideal domain and thus a GCD-domain.)