I was working my way through some number theoretic proofs and being a newbie am stuck on this proof :
Why does the gcd of two numbers , say (a,b) - also divides their difference : a-b
My Question :
As I am a novice to induction and proofs , in general , can someone help me out ?
That means we have integer numbers $m$, $n$, $c$ with $$ c = \gcd(a,b) $$ and $$ a = c \cdot m $$ and $$ b = c \cdot n $$ because $c$ is a common divisor (a divisor of both $a$ and $b$), which means that $$ a - b = c \cdot m - c \cdot n = c \cdot (m - n) $$ where $m - n$ is an integer as well. So $c$, the gcd, divides $a-b$ too.
As André Nicolas noted, the property, that it is the greatest of the common divisors is not needed.