As a part of a proof I want to use that for polynomials $c, x,y$ it is the case that $\gcd(x,y)=1$ then $\gcd(c \cdot x, c \cdot y)=c$. Is this always true?
2026-03-25 06:04:05.1774418645
$\gcd(x,y)=1$ then $\gcd(c \cdot x, c \cdot y)=c$ for polynomials
44 Views Asked by user459879 https://math.techqa.club/user/user459879/detail AtRelated Questions in GCD-AND-LCM
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