$\gcd(x,y)=1$ then $\gcd(c \cdot x, c \cdot y)=c$ for polynomials

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As a part of a proof I want to use that for polynomials $c, x,y$ it is the case that $\gcd(x,y)=1$ then $\gcd(c \cdot x, c \cdot y)=c$. Is this always true?