I am thinking on integrals of the form
$$ \int\limits_0^{\infty} \dfrac{ x^a }{(x+1)(x^2+1) } dx $$
First of all, we have to realize that integral only make sense if $a>2$.
If $a=0$, we can just apply partial fractions, so it is easy.
If $a=1$, then pretty much as before and same with $a=2$.
My question is, how about if $a=1/2$ or $a=3/2$, does the integral have closed form?
Note $\frac{ 1}{(x+1)(x^2+1) } = \frac12\left(\frac{1}{x+1 }+\frac{1-x}{x^2+1 }\right)$ and
$$ \int\limits_0^{\infty} \dfrac{ x^a }{(x+1)(x^2+1) } dx =\frac12 \int\limits_0^{\infty}\left( \dfrac{ x^a }{x+1 } + \frac{ x^{a}}{x^2+1 } -\frac{ x^{a +1}}{x^2+1 } \right)dx\\ =\frac\pi4\left(-2\csc\pi\alpha + \sec\frac{\pi\alpha}2+ \csc\frac{\pi\alpha}2\right) $$
where the result $\int_0^\infty \frac{x^{b-1}}{x^m +1}= \frac\pi m \csc\frac{\pi b}m$ is used.