This problem is an extension of the post System of 3 variable differential equations with 3 repeating eigen values
Where now the system is, I need help in identifying why the answer differs from that offered by wolfram alpha
$x' =ax+y$
$y' =ay+z$
$z' =az$
Solving
$ det \begin{bmatrix} a-\lambda &1 &0 \\ 0 &a-\lambda &1 \\ 0 &0 &a-\lambda \end{bmatrix} =0 \Rightarrow \lambda_{1,2,3} =a $
Thus using generalized eigen vectors we solve
$ \begin{bmatrix} 0 &1 &0 \\ 0 &0 &1 \\ 0 &0 &0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} y \\ z \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} \Rightarrow v_1=\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}, x_{free-variable} =1 $
and
$ \begin{bmatrix} 0 &1 &0 \\ 0 &0 &1 \\ 0 &0 &0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} \Rightarrow v_2=\begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}, x_{free-variable} =0 $
and
$ \begin{bmatrix} 0 &1 &0 \\ 0 &0 &1 \\ 0 &0 &0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix} \Rightarrow v_3=\begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}, x_{free-variable} =0 $
then using the formula for the general solutions
$ \begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \\ z \end{bmatrix} =c_1v_1e^{λt}+c_2(v_1 te^{λt}+v_2 e^{λt})+c_3(v_1 t^2e^{λt}+v_2 te^{λt}+v_3 e^{λt}) $
we get
$x(t)=c_3e^{at}t^2+c_2e^{at}t+c_1e^{at}$
$y(t)=c_2e^{at}+c_3e^{at}$
$z(t)=c_3e^{at}$
and wolfram alpha's answer is this
$x(t)=\frac{1}{2}c_3e^{at}t^2+c_2e^{at}t+c_1e^{at}$
$y(t)=c_2e^{at}+c_3e^{at}$
$z(t)=c_3e^{at}$
Note using the new formula in the linked post would get
$x(t)=c_3e^{at}t^2+c_2e^{at}t+c_1e^{at}$
$y(t)=c_2e^{at}+2c_3e^{at}$
$z(t)=2c_3e^{at}$
It appears my previous method doesn't translate very well to larger systems, and looks to be a bit confusing. I will give a more standard answer below, but be sure to check your text to see what they do.
The coefficient matrix
$$ \textbf{A} = \begin{bmatrix} a & 5 & 0 \\ 0 & a & 2 \\ 0 & 0 & a \\ \end{bmatrix} $$
has the following (generalized and regular) eigenvectors for the eigenspace $\lambda = a$
$$ \vec{v}_1 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}, \quad \vec{v}_2 = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1/5 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}, \quad \vec{v}_3 = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1/10 \end{bmatrix} $$
So we can rewrite $\textbf{A}$ as a Jordan decomposition
$$ \textbf{A} = \textbf{V}\textbf{J}\textbf{V}^{-1} $$
where the columns $\textbf{V}$ are the vectors above, and $\textbf{J}$ is the Jordan normal form
$$ \textbf{J} = \begin{bmatrix} a & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & a & 1 \\ 0 & 0 & a \end{bmatrix} $$
This form, similar to diagonalization, makes it very easy to apply the matrix exponential
$$ e^{t\textbf{A}} = \textbf{V}\big(e^{t\textbf{J}}\big)\textbf{V}^{-1} = \textbf{V} \begin{bmatrix} e^{at} & te^{at} & \frac{t^2}{2}e^{at} \\ 0 & e^{at} & te^{at} \\ 0 & 0 & e^{at} \end{bmatrix} \textbf{V}^{-1} $$
A formula for applying a function to the Jordan form is shown here. The general solution, then, is
$$ \begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \\ z \end{bmatrix} = e^{t\textbf{A}} \vec{r}_0 = \textbf{V}\big(e^{t\textbf{J}}\big)\textbf{V}^{-1}\begin{bmatrix} x_0 \\ y_0 \\ z_0 \end{bmatrix}$$
where the vector $\vec{r}_0$ describes the initial state. Since it is arbitrary (not given), we can assign
$$ \textbf{V}^{-1}\begin{bmatrix} x_0 \\ y_0 \\ z_0 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} c_1 \\ c_2 \\ c_3 \end{bmatrix} $$
as a vector of arbitrary constants. This gives
$$ \begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \\ z \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & \frac{1}{5} & 0\\ 0 & 0 & \frac{1}{10} \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} e^{at} & te^{at} & \frac{t^2}{2}e^{at} \\ 0 & e^{at} & te^{at} \\ 0 & 0 & e^{at} \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} c_1 \\ c_2 \\ c_3 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} c_1e^{at} + c_2te^{at} + c_3\frac{t^2}{2}e^{at} \\ \frac{1}{5}\big(c_2e^{at} + c_3e^{at}\big) \\ \frac{1}{10}c_3e^{at} \end{bmatrix} $$
This is probably the answer WolframAlpha gave you, and is more or less equivalent to the one I had before, with the third constant scaled down by a factor of $\frac12$
For the problem in this question, you got lucky because the matrix is already in its Jordan normal form, i.e. $\textbf{A} = \textbf{J}$ and $\textbf{V} = \textbf{I}$, so the solution is a lot less involved.