Let $\mathcal{R}([a.b])$ the set of all Riemann-integrable functions in $[a,b]$. Let $\mathcal{R}^{*}([a,b])$ the set of all Generalized Riemann-Integrable functions in $[a,b]$ (I'm talking about the Henstock-Kurzweil Integral).
We know that, if $f,g\in\mathcal{R}([a,b])$, so $f\cdot g\in\mathcal{R}^{*}([a,b])$. Can we say the same for Generalized Riemann- Integral?
Saying different, $f,g\in\mathcal{R}^{*}([a,b])\Rightarrow f\cdot g\in\mathcal{R}^{*}([a,b])$?
No, this is not true. For instance, let $f(x)=\frac{\sin (1/x)}{x}$ and let $g(x)=\operatorname{sgn}(f(x))$. Then $f$ and $g$ are both Henstock-Kurzweil integrable on $[0,1]$, but $f(x)g(x)=|f(x)|$ is not. The point is that the Henstock-Kurzweil integral allows for a kind of "conditional" (rather than absolute) convergence, which can turn into divergence when you multiply by a function that makes the product always have the same sign.