I'm interested to understand what is the general solution for the differential equation $$x^{n}\frac{d^{m}y}{dx^{m}}\,=\,0$$ where $n,m\in\mathbb{N}$.
If $m=1$, then the solution can be found in Kanwal's generalized function book and is given by: $$y\,=\,c_{1}\,+\,c_{2}\Theta(x)\,+\,c_{3}\delta(x)\,+\,c_{4}\delta^{\prime}(x)\,+\,\ldots\,+\,c_{n+1}\delta^{(n-2)}(x)$$ where $\delta^{(n-2)}(x)$ denotes a Dirac delta function differentiated $n-2$ times. How can I generalize this result?
I can't even guarantee that these operations are correct since we are working with distributions but here's an attempt to play with the problem.
If we know how to solve
$$ x^n \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 $$
Then we can differentiate this to find
$$ nx^{n-1} \left( \frac{dy}{dx} \right)^2 + x^n \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = 0 $$
Now we can multiply by $x$ to yield:
$$ nx^{n} \left( \frac{dy}{dx} \right)^2 + x^{n+1} \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = 0 $$
So by substitution then it must be that $x^{n+1} \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2}$ = 0
So we have that the solutions to:
$$ x^n \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 $$
Also solve:
$$ x^{n+1} \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2}$$
By this token I would be inclined to try if the solutions to
$$ x^{n} \frac{d^m y}{dx^m} $$
Are solved by the solutions to
$$ x^{n-m+1} \frac{dy}{dx} = 0 $$
Which you say already has a solution.