In a set theory class, I learned that $\aleph_1^{\aleph_0}=2^{\aleph_0}$, which was proven by a clever counting argument.
I was wondering if it was possible to generalize this. I.e., does $\aleph_2^{\aleph_1}=2^{\aleph_1}$, or more generally $$\aleph_{\beta+1}^{\aleph_\beta}=2^{\aleph_{\beta}}$$ for other ordinals?
$2\leq \aleph_{\beta+1}$ implies $2^{\aleph_\beta} \leq \aleph_{\beta+1}^{\aleph_\beta}$.
$\aleph_{\beta+1} \leq 2^{\aleph_\beta}$ implies $\aleph_{\beta+1}^{\aleph_\beta} \leq (2^{\aleph_\beta})^{\aleph_\beta} = 2^{\aleph_\beta\cdot \aleph_\beta} = 2^{\aleph_\beta}$.
So $\aleph_{\beta+1}^{\aleph_\beta} = 2^{\aleph_\beta}$.