I am pretty new to the topic of generating functions and I would appreciate if someone could help me out with this problem I have.
In the lecture we have proven the following generating function for the number of derangements $d(n)$ in $S_{n}$: $$D(z):=\sum_{n \geq 0}\frac{d(n)}{n!}z^{n} = \frac{e^{-z}}{1-z}$$ We did that by "manipulating" the term with $(1-z)$ and using the identity $d(n) = (n-1) [d(n-1) + d(n-2)]$. This has led us to a differential equation which we then solved to complete the proof.
First of all, what does that mean, "manipulate"?
I am now supposed to give an alternative proof by manipulating $D(z)e^{z}$ and using the following identity: $$n! = \sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k} d(k)$$
I tried doing it the same way we did it in the lecture, but as I have no clue about generating functions, I failed. I'd really appreciate some advice or ideas that could lead to solving this.
You know that
$$e^z=\sum_{n\ge 0}\frac1{n!}z^n$$
and that
$$D(z)=\sum_{n\ge 0}\frac{d(n)}{n!}z^n\;.$$
Now take the Cauchy product:
$$D(z)e^z=\left(\sum_{n\ge 0}\frac{d(n)}{n!}z^n\right)\left(\sum_{n\ge 0}\frac1{n!}z^n\right)=\sum_{n\ge 0}c_nz^n\;,$$
where
$$c_n=\sum_{k=0}^n\left(\frac{d(k)}{k!}\cdot\frac1{(n-k)!}\right)=\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{d(k)}{k!(n-k)!}=\frac1{n!}\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}d(k)\;.$$