Give an equational proof $$ \vdash (\forall x)(A \rightarrow (\exists x)B) \equiv ((\exists x)A \rightarrow (\exists x)B)$$
I don't know where to start. Maybe I could start with $ (\forall x)(A \rightarrow (\exists x)B) $ and change it to $ (\forall x)(\lnot A \lor (\exists x)B)$.
See George Tourlakis, Mathematical Logic (2008) or this post for a list of axioms and theorems.
As you have proposed, transform : $(∀x)(A \rightarrow (∃x)B)$ into :
Then, apply 6.4.2 Corollary : $\vdash (\forall x)(A \lor B) \equiv A \lor (\forall x)B$, provided $x$ is not free in $A$,
where $x$ is not free in $(∃x)B$, to get :
$(∀x)\lnot A \lor (∃x)B$.
Then we "switch" to $\exists$ :
$\lnot(\exists x)A \lor (∃x)B$.
Finally, we reintroduce $\rightarrow$ :
All steps are equivalences.