This is the way I prove $(b, m) = (b + mx, m)$:
Suppose $(b, m) = t$.
Then $b = pt$, $m = qt$, where $(p, q) = 1$.
$b + mx = pt + qtx$.
So $(b + mx, m) = (pt + qtx, qt) = t = (b, m)$
But if I am given $(b,m)$, I can't come up with $(b, m) = (b + mx, m)$ right away.
I need some better explanation about the relation between $(b, m)$ and $(b + mx, m)$.
If $x$ is an integer, then $(b,m) = (b+mx,m)$.
If $c = (b,m)$ you can easily show that $c\mid (b+mx)$ and $c\mid m$. So $c$ is a common divisor of both $b+mx$ and $m$. Thus $(b,m) \leq (b+mx,m)$ (by definition of $\gcd$).
On the other hand if $d = (b+mx,m)$, then first note $d\mid m$. Then $d\mid b$ as well, since $d\mid (b+mx)$ and $d\mid mx$. So $(b+mx,m) \leq (b,m)$.
Combining both inequalities yields $(b,m) = (b+mx,m)$.