Let $f \in C^1(\Bbb{R})$ such that $f'(x)>0$ always with $\lim_{x\to \infty} f'(x)=0$, then is $f$ bounded above?
Tried many functions but couldn't find any counter, all seems to be satisfying, not sure if the statement is true or not.
Let $f \in C^1(\Bbb{R})$ such that $f'(x)>0$ always with $\lim_{x\to \infty} f'(x)=0$, then is $f$ bounded above?
Tried many functions but couldn't find any counter, all seems to be satisfying, not sure if the statement is true or not.
No, consider,
$$f(x) = \begin{cases}x-1 & x\leq 1,\\ \log x & x>1 \end{cases}$$