Coming from a Comp Sci, rather than Mathematics, background I am comfortable with simple differentiation and integration, but this problem is beyond my understanding.
Could someone please walk me through the proof that, given $f(x) = \frac{1}{(1+e^{−x})}$, then $f'(x) = f(1−f)$.
I can't seem to map on $f(1-f)$ to the derivative I (and google) produce.
This is probably really obvious to most of you, but thanks in advance!
You can start checking who is $$f\left( {1 - f} \right) = {1 \over {\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)}}\left( {1 - {1 \over {\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)}}} \right) = {1 \over {\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)}} - {1 \over {{{\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)}^2}}} = {{1 + {e^{ - x}} - 1} \over {{{\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)}^2}}} = {{{e^{ - x}}} \over {{{\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)}^2}}}$$
and then, using the chain rule,
$$\eqalign{ & f\left( x \right) = {1 \over {\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)}} = {\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)^{ - 1}} \cr & f'\left( x \right) = - {\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)^{ - 2}} - {e^{ - x}} \cr & f'\left( x \right) = {{{e^{ - x}}} \over {{{\left( {1 + {e^{ - x}}} \right)}^2}}} \cr} $$