If $a>0$, and $g\in L^1(-a,a)$ define: $$f:\mathbb{C}\rightarrow\mathbb{C}, z\mapsto \int_{-a}^{a}g(t)e^{2\pi izt}\operatorname{d}t.$$ I know from Riemann-Lebesgue lemma that: $$\forall y\in\mathbb{R}, |f(x+iy)|\rightarrow0, |x|\rightarrow\infty.$$ Does the same relation hold uniformly in $y$ on compact sets? I.e.:
Is it true that $$\forall M>0, \sup_{y\in[-M,M]}|f(x+iy)|\rightarrow0, |x|\rightarrow\infty?$$ If not, what about if we strengthen the condition $g\in L^1(-a,a)$ to $g\in L^p(-a,a)$ for $p>1$?
This is true and here are some hints: if the result is false there exist sequence $\{y_n\}$,$\{x_n\}$ such that $|y_n| \leq M$, $|x_n| \to \infty$ and $|f(x_n+iy_n)|$ is bounded away from $0$. Choose a subsequence of $(y_n)$ converging to some $y$. Note that $\int_{-a}^{a} |g(t)e^{-2\pi y_n t}-g(t)e^{-2\pi y t}|\, dt \to 0$. Convergence in $L^{1}$ implies uniform convergence of Fourier transforms. Now use the fact that $f(x_n+iy) \to 0$ to get a contradiction.