I've come across this problem while working on some MIT OpenCourseWare:
Problem: Show that any second-order linear inhomogeneous equation that has $x^2$ and $\sin^2 x$ as solutions must have a singular point at the origin.
My Work: Currently, the best reasoning I have is to say that $x^2 - \sin^2 x$ is a solution of the homogeneous equation. If we know one non-vanishing solution, then we can find the other using the formula,
$$cf\int \frac{e^{-\int p(t)\, dt}}{f^2(t)}\, dt$$
where $p$ is the coefficient function of $y'$ in the DE ($y'' + py' + qy = r$) and $f$ is the known non-vanishing solution. Clearly, $x^2 - \sin^2 x = 0$ only when $x = 0$, and so the second solution from this formula would fail at this point. However, this just tells me that this method fails here and not that there is necessarily a singular point at $x = 0$.
Any help would be much appreciated.
$y(x)=x^2-\sin^2x$ is a solution of the homogeneous equation satisfying $y(0)=y'(0)=0$. If $x=0$ were a regular point, the unique solution with those initial conditions would be $y(x)\equiv0$. Thus, $x$ is a singular point.