We were taught this in class:
Given the real numbers b1, b2,..., bn, there exists a cyclic function such that its non-zero Fourier coefficients are b1, b2, ... bn.
Can someone please explain why this is true?
We were taught this in class:
Given the real numbers b1, b2,..., bn, there exists a cyclic function such that its non-zero Fourier coefficients are b1, b2, ... bn.
Can someone please explain why this is true?
One can just put formula for this function $$f(t) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} b_{k}e^{-k*t*i}$$