$V$ is a finite-dimensional vector space over $\mathbb{F}$, and $T$ is a linear operator on $V$ such that $T^2 = T$. Show that $V = \ker(T) \oplus \ker(T-I)$
It is easy to see that $\ker(T) \cap \ker(T-I) = \{0\}$, so that is sorted.
Since $T^2 = T$, we know that $\forall v \in V$, $T(T(v)) = T(v)$. $\ker(T)$ is essentially the set of vectors $\in V$ for which $T(v) = 0$. As a result, $T^2(v) = T(T(v)) = 0$ but that doesn't tell us anything new. I found a related question here but that is the converse of the result I wish to obtain.
Any hints/answers would be great (preferably something to point me in the right direction so I can work it out on my own)
Hint. For any $v \in V$, $$v = (v - T(v)) + T(v).$$