Let $\langle A,R \rangle$ and $\langle B,S \rangle$ be two well-orders, and let $\text{pred}(A,x,R) := \{y \in A \;|\; yRx\}$ and similarly for $\text{pred}(B,z,S)$.
It is claimed that one of the following must hold:
$1$. $\langle A,R \rangle \cong \langle B,S \rangle$.
$2$. $\exists y \in B\left(\langle A,R \rangle \cong \langle \text{pred}(B,y,S),S\rangle\right)$.
$3$. $\exists x \in A\left(\langle \text{pred}(A,x,R), R \rangle \cong \langle B,S \rangle \right)$.
The proof of this seems like a sketch, giving us $f := \{\langle v,w \rangle\;:\: v \in A \land w \in B \land \text{pred}(A,v,R), R \rangle \cong \langle \text{pred}(B,w,S),S\rangle\}$
and it is claimed that it can not be the case that both initial segments are proper, which I interpret as $\neg (\text{pred}(A,v,R) \subsetneqq A \land \text{pred}(B,w,S) \subsetneqq B)$.
First: Is my understanding of what is claimed correct?
Second: Given that my understanding of what is claimed is correct, I fail to see why this can't be the case. I don't know exactly how to proceed. Any illumination on how to think would be well appreciated.
This question is motivated by the proof of lemma $6.3$, chapter $1$, in Kunen's "Introduction to independence proof's".
What you need to show is