Given $u$ subharmonic, show that $u^p$ subharmonic for $p\geq 1$

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Exercise

I'm currently reading through Holomorphic Functions and Integral Representations in Several Complex Variables by R. Michael Range, and I've been tasked with the following (Exercise II.4.4):

Let $u$ be subharmonic on $D\subseteq\mathbb{C}$. Show that $u^p$ is subharmonic for $p\geq 1$.

There is also a hint:

Hint: Use Hölder's inequality.

My Thoughts

I feel like I can prove this if I'm given that $u$ is nonnegative on $D$, since Hölder's inequality shows $$ \int_{0}^{2\pi}|u(z_0+\rho e^{it})|\,dt\leq\left(\int_{0}^{2\pi}|u(z_0+\rho e^{it})|^{p}\,dt\right)^{1/p} $$ for some fixed $z_0\in D$ and $\rho>0$ small enough that $B(z_0,\rho)\subseteq D$, and if I'm given $u\geq 0$ on $D$, then $|u|=u$ and combining the above equation with the sub-mean-value property of $u$ should show the result.

Also I feel like if I'm merely given $u$ continuous I could do some local arguments of this sort to show the result, but I'm not even given that.

I had a moment of weakness and looked on the internet to see I could find this proven somewhere, but every source I could find only proved it given $u\geq 0$ on the domain. This makes think that the statement might even be true unless given this extra hypothesis.

Any help is greatly appreciated. Thank you.

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It doesn't really make sense to allow $u$ to attain negative values. What is $(-1)^{5/2}$ or $(-1)^{\pi}$ supposed to mean? (Subharmonic functions are real-valued.)

Most likely the author forgot to add the assumption that $u\ge 0$.