The question may sound silly but is there a simple logic to counter the paradox.I will be glad to know if there is. Thank You. Edit: x,y $\in R\;\; x,y \neq 0$, m is a integer. Now x = y when m is odd x = y or -y when m is even. and x and y cant be related when m = o.
I didn't mean to say there is a paradox. The question asked above is asked in one of my interview and I was asked to explain mathematically. I gave the above reply but they didn't seem to be satisfied. That is the reason I posted this question to know if there is any mathematical reason. Sorry if anyone thinks such questions shouldn't be posted and thank you everyone for taking their time in commenting.
If $m \geq 2$ and $m$ is even, $x$ and $y$ are real, then $x^m=y^m \implies x=y$ or $x=-y$.
$x^0=1 ,\forall x \neq 0, x \in \mathbb{R}$.
There is no contradiction.