It looks that trivial for me that I can't be 100% sure I do the proof correctly. would appreciate your attention and critique.
this is what I did:
- given: $\forall {x\in X}: x\in A$
- Need to prove: $\forall y\in X\cap B: y\in A$
So $y\in X \cap B$ implies $y\in X$ and $y\in B$. Then from the statment '$p\land q \to p$' it follows that $y \in X$, but we also know that $X\subseteq A$. Hence $y \in A$. Therefore we conclude that: $X\cap B \subseteq A$.
Is everything correct??
Using your notation and a natural deduction style,