I need help because I'm a bit confused about the correct way to treat Euler's formula.
If I ask Wolfram Alpha (WA) about $(i^i)^4$ the answer is $e^{(-2 \pi)}$, therefore, I thought, ok this must be equal to $(e^{i 2 \pi})^i$ but, this is not true, WA says that is equal 1...but, it says that its general form is $e^{-2\pi n}$ but that can not be ever 1...so my head explodes here.
Note: I will appreciate a link to a good explanation about that kind of things.
Thank you
The result is obtained from
$$i=e^{\frac{i\pi}{2}+2 k \pi i}$$
then
$$i^i=e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}-2k \pi}$$
and
$$(i^i)^4=e^{-2\pi-8k \pi}$$