- We assume the gravitational pull of the earth to be approximately $9.81\ \mathrm{m/s^2}$.
- If I model it as a particle and place an object $0.0254$ m away, what is the new force?
- I tried using the inverse square law and the radius of the actual earth to figure out the force from $0$ m away, then went to use the inverse square law again to find this $F$ from $0.0254$ m away, but of course squaring this decimal will only make it smaller, making the force bigger, but this is axiomatically false.
How should the method be modified to get a coherent answer? What should be changed?
Thanks for any help.
I will point out here that I have all the correct calculations and know what I am doing in that respect, but if I am 0m away from the object, then the force is F, and if I am a distance s from it, the force is F/s^2, which will axiomatically be smaller than F as that is a fundamental property of physics. However if I am 0.254m away, then the force comes out as F/0.254^2, which is far greater than F as we are dividing by a number between 0 and 1, but this should be less than F as we have moved away. I am asking for a workaround for this, not an answer for the force as I know how to find it without this complication. I would use different units, but I'd then need to know what to multiply the output by to get a correct answer in Newtons instead of kg cm/s^2.
If you model the earth as a point mass so that you can place an object at $0.0254$ m away without going inside the mass distribution, then in fact the force (or rather, the gravitational acceleration) at that distance will be incredibly large.
In fact, this is only about three times the "black hole radius" (Schwartzchild radius) of an Earth mass, so if you come three times closer, a light ray would not be able to escape!
(Yes, experts, I know that is a simplisitc way of looking at it and GR should be used, but c'mon, the OP is not looking for an answer like that!)