
I have approached this question the following way.
For Quantity $A$: The number of ways to pick $3$ cards including $1$ is : $1\cdot 4\cdot 3=12$ ways. [$1$ is fixed]
For Quantity $B$: The number of ways to pick $3$ cards excluding $1$ is : $4\cdot 3\cdot 2=24$ ways resulting $24$ which means $B$ is a greater quantity, but I got it wrong.
Can someone explain to me where I went wrong? I did not find Manhattan's explanation to this problem sufficient, they use some weird shortcuts. Can someone break this down if possible?
They’re counting $3$-card sets, not sequences of $3$ cards. There are $\binom42=6$ pairs of cards that could be combined with the $1$, so Quantity A is $6$. There are $\binom43=4$ ways to choose $3$ of the non-$1$ cards, so Quantity B is only $4$.
Since the numbers are so small, here are the $3$-card hands that include the $1$:
$$\{1,2,3\},\{1,2,4\},\{1,2,5\},\{1,3,4\},\{1,3,5\},\{1,4,5\}$$
And here are the $3$-card hands that don’t include it:
$$\{2,3,4\},\{2,3,5\},\{2,4,5\},\{3,4,5\}$$