I'm have been studying Gröbner bases for a while now and seen a few examples in my textbook / exercises.
Let $\mathcal k$ be a field and $\mathcal k[x_1,..,x_n]$ a polynomial ring.
I wish to solve a system of equations $f_1, .., f_k \in \mathcal k[x_1,..,x_n]$ where $G$ a Gröbner basis for $I = <f_1, ..,f_n>$ (ideal generated by $f_1,..,f_n$)
$f_1(x_1,..,x_n) = 0, .., f_k(x_1, .. ,x_n) = 0$
In the examples / exercises all solutions to $G \cap \mathcal k[x_1,.., x_i]$ also imply that these solutions work for solving polynomial equations $G \cap \mathcal k[x_1,.., x_i, x_{i+1}]$ all the way up to $ i = n$.
I haven't experienced that a solution $x$ for $G \cap \mathcal k[x_1,.., x_i]$ make the system of the equations $G \cap \mathcal k[x_1,.., x_i, x_{i+1}]$ unsolveable, when $x$ plugged in.
So does a solution $x$ for $G \cap \mathcal k[x_1,.., x_i]$ imply that there exist $x_{i+1} \in \mathcal k$ such that $G \cap \mathcal k[x_1,.., x_i, x_{i+1}]$ is solved for $x, x_{i+1}$ ?
Please give a counter example if possible, thanks.
Consider $k[x_1,x_2]$, $f_1=x_1$, $f_2=x_2^2+1$. We have that $G:=\{f_1,f_2\}$ is already a Groebner basis of the ideal $\left<f_1,f_2\right>$.
We have that $G\cap k[x_1]=\{f_1\}$ and we get as solution of $f_1=0$, $x_1=0$.
But $G\cap k[x_1,x_2]=\{f_1,f_2\}=\{x_1,x_2^2+1\}$. If $k$ doesn't contain square roots of $-1$ then the equation $x_2+1=0$ is not going to have solutions.