I am new at group theory, and I came across a question I would like help with
Suppose we have a set $S$ with the only elements $p,q,r$. Let $a$ and $b$ be two elements of $S$. Consider the following properties of $S$:
1) $aa=a$
2) $ab=ba$
3) $(ab)c=a(bc)$
4)$pa=a$ for every element $a$
Prove that there exists some element in $b \in S$ such that $bp=b, bq=b, br=b$.
Thank you! I am new in Group Theory so i was just looking for some help
The wording is a little unclear, but I’m assuming that (1)-(3) hold for every choice of $a,b$, and $c$ in $S$.
You know, using (2) and (4), that $bp=pb=b$ for any choice of $b$, so it’s $bq$ and $br$ that you have to worry about. If $b=q$, you’ll get $bq=qq=q$, but it’s clear whether $br=qr$ will be equal to $q$. A similar problem arises if $b=r$: we don’t know whether $rq=r$ or not. Of course by (2) $rq=qr$, so the real question is what $qr$ is. All we know is that it must be one of $q$ and $r$ if such a $b$ is going to exist. So why not just try letting $b=qr$, whatever it is?
Then $(qr)p=p(qr)=qr$ by (2) and (4), $(qr)q=(rq)q=r(qq)=rq=qr$ by (2), (3), (1), and (2) again, and $(qr)r=q(rr)=qr$ by (3) and (1).
However, there’s a potential trap here: we want $qr$ to be whichever one of $q$ and $r$ makes this work, but how do we know that $qr$ isn’t actually $p$ instead? The answer is in Henry’s comment below: if $qr$ were equal to $p$, we’d have $(qr)r=pr=r$ by (4), but also $(qr)r=q(rr)=qr=p$ by (3) and (1), and $r$ would have to be equal to $p$, which we know is not true. We can be assured, therefore, that $qr\ne p$.