A formula that I never memorized by heart is $v_p(n!) = \frac{n-s}{p-1}$ where $s$ is the sum of the digits of $n$ in base $p$.
While it follows in a few lines from Legendre's formula, the reason I didn't memorize the above is that I do not yet grasp it intuitively. Is there a "hands-on" argument from which one "immediately" sees that this fraction has to be the correct term (other than the straightforward computation from Legendre's formula)?
As Daniel Fischer's question comment outlines, consider the sum of digits in base $b$ of $i - 1$ compared to $i$. The smallest power (i.e., right-most) non-zero digit of $i$ is decreased by $1$ and all of the $0$ terms, if any, to the right of it are changed to $b - 1$. For example, in base $10$, you get $2100 - 1 = 2099$. Since the number of $0$ terms to the right of the lowest power non-zero one is $\nu_{b}(i)$, this means there's a net change in the digits sum of $-1 + (b - 1)\nu_{b}(i)$. Having $s_p(j)$ be the sum of digits of $j$ in base $p$, this gives for any $i \gt 0$ that
$$\begin{equation}\begin{aligned} s_p(i - 1) & = s_p(i) - 1 + (p - 1)\nu_{p}(i) \\ (p - 1)\nu_{p}(i) & = - s_p(i) + s_p(i - 1) + 1 \\ \nu_{p}(i) & = \frac{- s_p(i) + s_p(i - 1) + 1}{p - 1} \\ \nu_{p}(i) & = \frac{i - s_p(i) + s_p(i - 1) + 1 - i}{p - 1} \\ \nu_{p}(i) & = \frac{(i - s_p(i)) - ((i - 1) - s_p(i - 1))}{p - 1} \\ \end{aligned}\end{equation}\tag{1}\label{eq1B}$$
Since
$$\nu_p(n!) = \sum_{i = 1}^{n}\nu_p(i) \tag{2}\label{eq2B}$$
then \eqref{eq1B} shows \eqref{eq2B} is summing a telescoping series. Thus, each first positive term cancels with the negative term of the next summation item, so all which is left is the positive term of the largest summation item, i.e., $n - s_p(n)$, and the negative term of the first summation item, i.e., $0$. Thus, \eqref{eq2B} becomes
$$\nu_p(n!) = \frac{n - s_p(n)}{p - 1} \tag{3}\label{eq3B}$$