Let $u(z)$ be harmonic on all of $\mathbb{C}$ such that
$$\int \int_{\mathbb{C}} \vert u(z) \vert^2 dx dy < \infty$$
Prove then that $u(z)=0$ for all $z$.
So a few ideas I had, since we know $u(z)$ is harmonic, this means $u_{xx}+u_{yy}=0$ but I don't know how to use that with my given information.
or do I use Fubini's Theorem?
Pick $w$ arbitrary in the plane and use the mean value property and Cauchy-Schwarz to get: $$|\pi R^2u(w)|^2=|\int \int_{B(u,R)} u(z) dx dy|^2 \le \int_{B(u,R)} |u(z)|^2 dx dy\int_{B(u,R)} 1 dx dy$$
But letting $M=\int \int_{\mathbb{C}} \vert u(z) \vert^2 dx dy$, we get that:
$$|\pi R^2u(w)|^2 \le M^2\pi R^2$$
Let $R \to \infty$ and conclude $u(w)=0$ so $u$ is identically zero as $w$ was arbitrary