I'm sorry if my formatting is sloppy, this is my first time posting on this forum, and I'm not certain how to use the site's formatting.
I need to prove four things, and I'm running into a few road blocks. Specifically, I need to prove the following:
PROVE: If $v$ is a probability vector (all entries add up to $1$), and A is a stochastic matrix (meaning a square matrix where the columns are probability vectors), prove $Av$ is another probability vector.
- For this one, I was given the hint of using $S= [1, 1, 1, ...]$, and to remember $VS=v_1+v_2+...$
SHOW: $v$ is a probability vector if and only if $Sv=1$, and $v(i)≥0$
- I also need to show that A is stochastic if and only if $SA=S$ and all entries $≥0$.
- The hint given for this one is that $B[a_1, a_2, ..., a_n]$ = $[Ba_1, Ba_2, ..., Ba_n]$
Let A be stochastic. If $(λ,v)$ is an eigenpair, then either $λ=1$, or the sum of the entries in $v=0$.
- The hint here is to use $S=[1, 1, ...]$.
Let A be a stochastic $2 \times 2$ matrix. Show that $1$ is an eigenvalue of A, and the other eigenvalue satisfies $|λ|≤1$.
- The thing to remember is that, as a stochastic matrix, the entries are $[a, b, 1-a, 1-b]$.
Any help for any or all of these would be greatly appreciated. Thank you in advance.
Allow me to use lowercase $\mathbf{s}$ for the vector $(1,\ldots,1)$. By $\sum_i$, I mean $\sum_{i=1}^{n}$, where $n$ is the dimension of your objects.
$\implies$: we assume that $\mathbf{v}$ is a probability vector, that means $\sum_i \mathbf{v}_i=1$. If we multiply the two vectors, we obtain $\mathbf{sv}=\sum_i \mathbf{s}_i\mathbf{v}_i$. Since $\forall i$ $\mathbf{s}_i=1$, we can further simplify $\sum_i \mathbf{s}_i\mathbf{v}_i=\sum_i \mathbf{v}_i$, which we assumed to be equal to 1.
$\impliedby$: Pretty much read the whole thing backwards. Assume $\mathbf{sv}=1$, then $1=\mathbf{sv}=\sum_i \mathbf{s}_i\mathbf{v}_i=\sum_i \mathbf{v}_i$.
As for the matrix case, use the just proven statement for every column individually, since the columns add up to $1$, just like $\mathbf{v}$.
For an eigenpair $(\lambda,\mathbf{v})$, the following holds: $$\lambda\mathbf{v}=A\mathbf{v}$$ Let's multiply the equation by $\mathbf{s}$ from the left and exploit what we proved in 2): $$\lambda=\lambda\mathbf{sv}=\mathbf{s\lambda v}=\mathbf{s}A\mathbf{v}\overset{2)}{=}\mathbf{sv}\overset{2)}{=}1$$ $\lambda = 1$ is clearly a solution, the case $\sum_i\mathbf{v}_i=0$ is in conflict with the definition of a probability vector.
You get the eigenvalues as roots of a determinant of the matrix \begin{pmatrix} a-\lambda & b \\ 1-a & 1-b-\lambda \\ \end{pmatrix} that is $$0\overset{!}{=}(a-\lambda)(1-b-\lambda)-b(1-a)=\lambda^2+(b-a-1)\lambda+(a-b)$$ Notice that $1$ is a root. Since $$\big{(}\lambda^2+(b-a-1)\lambda+(a-b)\big{)}:\big{(}\lambda-1\big{)}=\lambda + b - a$$ the other eigenvalue is $a-b$, which is always $\in[-1,1]$