I am newbie to calculus and having hard time to figure out
$y^{\prime\prime\prime} + \frac{1}{2}y\cdot y^{\prime\prime} = 0 $
One way to think about this was
$D^3 + \frac{1}{2}\cdot y\cdot D^2$
Where $D=y^\prime$
$D^2(D + \frac{1}{2}\cdot y) = 0 $
$D^2 = 0 $, $D = \frac{1}{2}\cdot y$

Hint:
With reference to http://eqworld.ipmnet.ru/en/solutions/ode/ode0503.pdf,
Let $u=\left(\dfrac{dy}{dx}\right)^2$ ,
Then $\dfrac{du}{dx}=2\dfrac{dy}{dx}\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2}$
$\dfrac{du}{dy}\dfrac{dy}{dx}=2\dfrac{dy}{dx}\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2}$
$2\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2}=\dfrac{du}{dy}$
$2\dfrac{d^3y}{dx^3}=\dfrac{d}{dx}\left(\dfrac{du}{dy}\right)=\dfrac{d}{dy}\left(\dfrac{du}{dy}\right)\dfrac{dy}{dx}=\pm\sqrt u\dfrac{d^2u}{dy^2}$
$\therefore\pm2\sqrt u\dfrac{d^2u}{dy^2}+y\dfrac{du}{dy}=0$
Which reduces to a generalized Emden-Fowler equation