Suppose $f$ is Riemann integrable over $[a,b]$. The proof I am reading that shows that $f$ must be bounded, just says if $f$ is unbounded then there is some point $x$, such that for any $n\in\mathbb{N}$ and $\epsilon>0$ if we take any partition divded into $n$ parts we have $|f(x)|>n\epsilon$ and so if we take $x$ as a tag in the partition then $$|S(f,\mathcal{P})-L|>\epsilon\space\space\space\space\space\space (\dagger),$$ where $S(f,\mathcal{P})$ is the Riemann sum of $f$ with respect to the partition $\mathcal{P}$ and $L=\int_a^bf$.
My trouble is trying to get $(\dagger)$, I am not sure how split up the Riemann sum to get the inequality, I was thinking the reverse triangle but get nowhere. So any help will be really appreciated and needed.
Thanks in advance
This seems wrong to me. I might be misunderstanding the use of "tag", however.
Look at $$ f(x) = \frac{1}{x-1} + \frac{1}{x+1} $$ on the interval $(-1, 1)$.
The points $+1$ and $-1$ are examples of the point $x$ with the necessary property (unboundedness near $x$). But if you take the $k$-interval equipartition with its $k+1$ breakpoints evenly spaced from $-1$ to $1$, and pick $k$ equispaced points between $-1$ and $1$ as the "samples" or "tags", you find that $S(f, P) = 0$. That's at least consistent with $L = 0$ (even through the function is not, in fact, Riemann integrable.
In short: the claim that unboundedness messes things up is correct. The alleged proof of this claim appears wrong.