Let $V\neq\{0_{V}\}$ be a finite dimensional vector space over a field $K$. Let $f\in\mathrm{End}(V)$. Suppose that every subspace of $V$ is be $f$-invariant. Then, prove that $f = a\cdot id_V$ for some $a\in K$, where $id_{V}$ is the identity map from $V$ to itself.
For the proof I have following ideas in my mind but have problems to finalize it or maybe it’s the wrong idea. Appreciate your support:
Let $(v_1,v_2,...,v_n)$ be an ordered basis of $V$, then
$$f(v_1)=c_1 v_1\ ,\,\ldots\ ,\ f(v_n)=c_n v_n$$
Further each vector v can be written as
$$v=\sum_{i} a_i v_i,\,a_{i}\in K,\forall i$$ so, we have $$f(v)=f\left(\sum a_i v_i\right)=\sum_{i} a_i f(v_i)=\sum_{i}a_i c_i v_i = c v$$
That means $\sum_{i} a_i c_i v_i - c v = 0. $ This is true if $c_i=c$, for all $i$.
$$f (v_1+v_2)=c (v_1+v_2) $$ $$=f (v_1)+f (v_2)=c_1v_1+c_2v_2$$
thus $$c_1=c_2=c $$ the matrix will be $c I $.