I need to prove this equality of integrals...but i dont know how to begin, so if anyone can give an idea...
Let f a continuous function on $\overline{D}=\{z : |z|\leq 1\}$. Then:
$$\overline{\int_{|z|=1} f(z) dz} = - \int_{|z|=1} \frac{\overline{f(z)}}{z^2} dz$$
And then ihave to calculate that
$$\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{|z|=1}\frac{\overline{f(z)}}{z-a}dz$$
for every a.
We know that $\overline{e^z}=e^{\overline{z}}$ and use circle parametrisation $\gamma(t)=e^{it}$, where $t \in [0,2\pi)$
$\overline{\int_{|z|=1} f(z) dz}=\overline{\int_{0}^{2\pi}ie^{it}f(e^{it})} dt=\int_{0}^{2\pi}\Re{ie^{it}f(e^{it})}dt-i\int_{0}^{2\pi}\Im{ie^{it}f(e^{it})}dt$
Next $e^{it}=\cos t+i \sin t$, so:
$\int_{0}^{2\pi}\Re{ie^{it}f(e^{it})}dt=\int_{0}^{2\pi}=-\int_{0}^{2\pi}\sin t \Re{f(e^{it})}dt$
$\int_{0}^{2\pi}\Im{ie^{it}f(e^{it})}dt=\int_{0}^{2\pi}\cos t \Im{f(e^{it})}dt$
Now you can compute the second integral, it's(with the same parametrisation):
$\int_{0}^{2\pi}ie^{-it}\overline{f(e^{it})}dt=\int_{0}^{2\pi}\Re{ie^{-it}\overline{f(e^{it})}}dt+i\int_{0}^{2\pi}\Im{ie^{-it}\overline{f(e^{it})}}dt$
But $e^{-it}=\cos t-i \sin t$, so:
$\int_{0}^{2\pi}\Re{ie^{-it}\overline{f(e^{it})}}dt=\int_{0}^{2\pi}=\int_{0}^{2\pi}\sin t \Re{f(e^{it})}dy$
$\int_{0}^{2\pi}\Im{ie^{-it}\overline{f(e^{it})}}dt=\int_{0}^{2\pi}\cos t \Im{f(e^{it})}dt$