I'm having immense trouble understanding the proof of:
$$(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R) \vdash P \vee (Q \wedge R)$$
With only $(P \vee Q)$ and $(P \vee R)$ as premises, I understand that I have to assume $(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R) \vdash P \vee (Q \wedge R)$ in a subproof but not what I have to do from there, that is: I don't entirely understand how $(Q \wedge R)$, or $(P)$ for that matter, is ever proven. Any help would be much appreciated.


Basically, $(P\vee Q)\wedge (P\vee R)$ means $P$ or $Q$, and $P$ or $R$.
In the case of $P$ then we clearly derive $P\vee(Q\wedge R)$.
In the case of $Q$ then $P\vee R$ is also still true
So all cases derive $P\vee(Q\wedge R)$.