Here we can find a simple proof of Zorn's Lemma, but I find something that I can't really understand. There is an statement that say: If A and B are conforming subsets of $X$ and $A\neq B$, then one of these two sets is an initial segment of the other.
If I take, by example, the set $X=\{0,1,2,3,4,5,6\}$, I can create two conforming subsets which satisfy the definition but aren't initial segment of each other, like $B=\{0,2,4,5\}$ and $C=\{0,2,3,4\}$.
This proof is similar to another used by Gorodentsev in his book Algebra I, so there is a thing that I am missing here.
Definition
We shall say that a subset $A$ of $X$ is conforming if the following two conditions hold:
- The order $\le$ is a well order of the set A.
- For every element $x \in A$, we have $x = f(P(A, x))$, where $f$ maps the initial segment to its strict upper bound x.
Definition
If $C$ is a chain in $X$ and $x\in C$, then we define $P(C, x) = \{ y \in C: y < x\}$. A subset of a chain $C$ that has the form $P(C, x)$ is called an initial segment in $C$.
No. You can't.
If $A$ is conforming, then its minimum element is $f(\varnothing)$. So that's unique, say $x_0$; then the next element is the one chosen by $f$ as an upper bound of $\{x_0\}$. So again, that's unique, call that $x_1$, etc. etc.
By transfinite induction we get that if $A$ and $B$ are both conforming, they must have been built by essentially iterating the choice function to a certain length. Since a choice function is a function its output are well-defined, that means that $A\subseteq B$ or $B\subseteq A$.
The reason you think you have two conforming subsets is that you didn't specify the choice function which maps a chain to an upper bound. Once you do, you have to ask yourself, is $f(\{x\mid x>2\})$ going to be equal to $3$ or to $4$?