I am trying to understand the proof of a divisibility rule from this website. I've had very little exposure to modular arithmetic, so in order to attempt to understand the proof I spent the afternoon studying some modular arithmetic to get a simple understanding of a few of the theorems and the syntax.
Despite this I am not understanding how the proof from the above site goes from this: $$ 10^m \equiv1^m \equiv1(mod3)$$ To this: $$ (a_0+a_1*10+a_2*10^2...+a_n*10^n)\equiv1*(a_0+a_1+a_2...+a_n)(mod3)$$
I understand why the first statement is true, but I fail to see how it allows the second statement to be made. How is it that the second statement follows from the first?
Modular arithmetic basically works just like ordinary arithmetic in respect of addition, subtraction and multiplication (but not division or cancellation). So for example, if you know that $x_1=y_1$ you can conclude that $$a_0+a_1x_1=a_0+a_1y_1\ .$$ Likewise, if $x_1=y_1$, $x_2=y_2$, . . . , $x_n=y_n$, then you can conclude $$a_0+a_1x_1+a_2x_2+\cdots+a_nx_n=a_0+a_1y_1+a_2y_2+\cdots+a_ny_n\ .$$ Just so, if you know that $$x_1\equiv y_1\,,\ x_2\equiv y_2\,,\ldots,\ x_n\equiv y_n\pmod m\ ,$$ then you have $$a_0+a_1x_1+a_2x_2+\cdots+a_nx_n \equiv a_0+a_1y_1+a_2y_2+\cdots+a_ny_n\pmod m\ .$$ Now take $x_k=10^k$ and $y_k=1$ and $m=3$, and you have exactly your situation.
Hope this helps.