I am a physicist and I am trying to get a grasp on the following terms from functional analysis:
As I understand, an operator is Hermitian if it is symmetric and bounded (domains of A and A* don't need to be equal in this case.)
An operator is selfadjoint if it is symmetric and the domains of A and A* are equal, D(A) = D(A*), so A = A*.
My question is, is the boundedness here an artefact of the finiteness of the Hilbert space? I.e., in the finite Hilbert spaces we can 'safely' work with the Hermitian operators, but in the infinite Hilbert spaces we lose the notion of boundedness, so we need to start to work with self-adjoint operators?
Or, if I am completely wrong here, what is the difference between the self-adjoint and Hermitian operator, in the context of finite vs. infinite Hilbert space?
I am not a fan of the term 'hermitian', because it is so often used haphazardly (sometimes it means symmetric, sometimes it means self-adjoint, sometimes it presupposes that the vector space is finite-dimensional). The term 'self-adjoint' seems to be used much more consistently, to mean a densely defined operator which satisfies $A=A^*$ (equivalently $A$ is symmetric and $\mathcal D(A)=\mathcal D(A^*)$). Basically, what you call a hermitian operator is a bounded self-adjoint operator. The point is that a self-adjoint operator is always closed, and the domain of a densely defined closed operator which is bounded must the entire space, so you get the domain assumption for free in the bounded case.
Now, why do we care that the Hamiltonian is self-adjoint and not just symmetric? One explanation goes as follows: When the Hamiltonian is self-adjoint, the spectral calculus allows us to define the strongly continuous one-parameter group of unitaries $\mathcal U(t)=e^{-itH}$. Omitting some details, this group allows us, for any wave function $\psi_0$, to construct a solution to the Cauchy problem for the Schrödinger equation, namely $\psi(t)=e^{-itH}\psi_0$. On the other hand, given a strongly continuous one-parameter group of unitaries $\mathcal U(t)$, there is a self-adjoint operator $H$ such that $\mathcal U(t)=e^{-itH}$ (this is Stone's theorem) and $\psi(t)=\mathcal U(t)\psi_0$ is a solution to the corresponding Cauchy problem for the Schrödinger equation with this $H$. Thus, if you want to have a reasonable time-evolution (in the sense above), and you want $\psi(t)$ to solve the Schrödinger equation, the Hamiltonian must be self-adjoint.
Edit: Perhaps more on topic, in the finite dimensional setting, all linear operators are bounded, so the (subtle) domain problems disappear completely (i.e. symmetric is equivalent to self-adjoint)!