I have to give a formal proof in the Hilbert calculus for
$(\forall x\,\,\phi)\rightarrow (\forall y\,\, \phi\frac{y}{x})$, if $x$ is free for $y$ in $\phi$ and $y$ is not free in $\phi$.
Unfortunately I have no idea how this proof could be done.
I would be very grateful, if someone could give a hint, or maybe show an example proof, using the Hilbert-calculus.
See :
1) $\forall x \phi$ --- assumption
2) $\forall x \phi \to \phi^y_x$ --- Ax.2 : $x$ is free for $y$ in $\phi$
3) $\phi^y_x$ --- from 1) and 2) by modus ponens
4) $\forall y \phi ^y_x$ --- from 3) by Generalization Th [page 117 : $y$ not free in $\forall x \phi$]