Is it true that $\mathbb CP^n - \mathbb CP^{n-1} \simeq \mathbb C^n\ $? Our professor used this result in showing that $$\mathbb CP^n/\mathbb CP^{n-1} \simeq S^{2n}.$$ My idea in this regard is the following $:$
There is a natural inclusion $i : \mathbb C P^{n-1} \longrightarrow \mathbb CP^{n}$ given by $$[z_0,\cdots,z_n] \mapsto [z_0,\cdots, z_n,0].$$ In view of this inclusion one can think of $$\mathbb CP^n - \mathbb CP^{n-1} = \left \{[z_0,\cdots, z_n] \in \mathbb CP^n\ \big |\ z_n \neq 0 \right \}.$$
Now since $\mathbb CP^n : = \frac {\mathbb C^{n+1} - \{0\}} {\mathbb C - \{0\}}$ it turns out that the elements of $\mathbb C P^n - \mathbb C P^{n-1}$ are of the form $[z_0,\cdots,z_{n-1},1].$ So in order a get a map $f : \mathbb CP^n - \mathbb CP^{n-1} \longrightarrow \mathbb C^n$ the obvious thing to do is to take the following map $:$ $$[z_0,\cdots, z_{n-1}, 1] \longmapsto (z_0, \cdots, z_{n-1}).$$ This map is clearly well-defined, one-one and onto. So if we can prove that $f$ is continuous and $\mathbb CP^n - \mathbb CP^{n-1}$ is compact then we are done with the proof because $\mathbb C^n$ (the range of $f$) is known to be Hausdorff.
But I am unable to prove these two facts. That's why I am coming here in this site to get some help. Any help will be greatly appreciated at this stage.
Thank you all!
We think $\mathbb{C}^n$ as a subspace embedded in $\mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ by the inclusion. Now, Since the usual map $\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \mathbb{C}^n\to \mathbb CP^{n+1}\setminus\mathbb CP^n$ is a quotient map, it follows from the universal property of quotient map, $\frac{\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \mathbb{C}^n}{\mathbb{C}\setminus 0}$ is homeomorphic to $\mathbb CP^{n+1}\setminus\mathbb CP^n$
Now, we will show that, $\frac{\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \mathbb{C}^n}{\mathbb{C}\setminus 0}$ is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{C}^n$
Consider, $f:\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \mathbb{C}^n \to\mathbb{C}^n$ via, $f(z_0,z_1,..,z_{n+1})=(\frac{z_0}{z_{n+1}},..)$
So, by universal property of quotient map, there exists a continuous map, $\phi:\frac{\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \mathbb{C}^n}{\mathbb{C}\setminus 0}\to\mathbb{C}^n$
On the other hand, $q\circ g$ gives a continuous map $\psi:\mathbb{C}^n\to\frac{\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \mathbb{C}^n}{\mathbb{C}\setminus 0},$ where $g:\mathbb{C}^n\to\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \mathbb{C}^n$ given by, $g(z_0,..,z_{n-1})=(z_0,..,z_{n-1},1)$ and $q$ is the usual quotient map from $\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \mathbb{C}^n\to\frac{\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \mathbb{C}^n}{\mathbb{C}\setminus 0}$
Now, it's not hard to see that $\phi,\psi$ are inverse of each other and hence result follows.