In example 2.42 Hatcher computes the homology of real projective space. I follow his argument, but I would be uncomfortable believing the details of the degree computation if I didn't see it in his text.
How does Hatcher conclude that the degree of one of the local homeomorphisms is 1, as opposed to -1? (I realize that this doesn't actually affect the homology computation.)
Is there some topological fact that lets him conclude that the restriction to one hemisphere of the composition $S^{k-1} \to RP^{k-1} \to RP^{-1}/RP^{k-2} = S^{k-1}$ is actually the identity map?

caveat: I am not that comfortable with this answer.
I think something is hidden in the notation here. The identification $$ \mathbb{RP}^{k-1}/\mathbb{RP}^{k-2} = S^{k-1} $$ is not canonical, despite what is suggested by the equals sign. For a concrete example, consider $\mathbb{RP}^2/\mathbb{RP}^1$.
If we take a point on $\mathbb{RP}^2$, thought of as a pair of antipodal points on $S^2$, and we map it to its representative on the southern hemisphere (well-defined unless it's on the equator, which we're killing),then collapse the closure of the northern-hemisphere to a point, we get a different identification of $\mathbb{RP}^2$ with the sphere than if we do the same with the words "northern" and "southern" replaced everwhere. These two maps differ by precomposition by the antipodal map. So one must make an arbitrary choice of identification (note that up to homotopy, this only matters for half of the $k$ (I am confused about odd and even, doubly so because our index starts on $k - 1$)).