I am wondering if $\varphi :\mathbb{R}[x] \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}[x]$ where $\varphi(p(x))=\frac{d}{dx}(xp(x))$ is really is a homomorphism. I can't think of a situation where it is not because I'm thinking that even $\mathbb{R}\subset \mathbb{R}[x]$. So if I had $p(x)=1, q(x)=2$ $$\varphi(p(x)+q(x))=\frac{d}{dx}((x)(1))+\frac{d}{dx}((x)(2))=1+2=\\=\varphi(p(x))+\varphi(q(x))$$
Is any of my reasoning wrong?
Thanks in advance for your help.
This is not a homomorphism of rings even if it is additive. In fact, for $p(x)=x, q(x)=x$, we have $$\varphi(p(x)q(x))=3x^2\neq \varphi(p(x)) \varphi(q(x))=2x\times 2x=4x^2.$$