I've been looking over problems in algebraic topology and figuring out questions dealing with homotopy equivalent spaces. I noticed the following problem, but can't formally verify my answer.
Determine whether or not $X = \mathbb{R}^3 \setminus \{p\}$ and $Y = \mathbb{R}^3 \setminus l$ are homotopy equivalent, where $\{p\}$ is a point and $l$ is a line.
Intuitively, it seems as though they are not, but as mentioned, I'm having a difficult time showing this. Would I be able to somehow show they are not using their fundamental groups? So far, I know that $\pi_1(X) = \{e\}$.
Can anyone help?
Thank you!
I not sure what it means to directly show 2 spaces are not homotopy equivalent - using fundamental groups is a fine way to do it.
To that end, the space $Y$ deformation retratcs onto $\mathbb{R}^2 - \{p\}$ where $p$ is a point on $l$. This space further deformation retracts onto $S^1$. What's $\pi_1(S^1)$?