Consider map $h:\mathbb{S}^{3}\to \mathbb{S}^{2}$ defined as $h(a,b)=(a\bar{b}+b\bar{a},ib\bar{a}-ia\bar{b},|a|^{2}-|b|^{2})$
Does it just follow by seeing h as map from $\mathbb{C}^{4}$ to $\mathbb{R}^{3}$ or am I missing sth, and it follows from somehow showing it's preimage of open is open.
Let $f \colon X \to Y$ be a continuous mapping of topological spaces. Then given any subset $A$ of $X$, the restriction $g \colon A \to Y$ is continuous.
Furthermore, given any continuous mapping $g \colon A \to Y$, if $B$ is a subset of $Y$ such that $g[A] \subset B$, then the induced mapping $h \colon A \to B$ is continuous.
In the present situation, $X = \mathbb{C}^2$, $Y = \mathbb{R}^3$, $A = S^3$, $B = S^2$.