$$\sum_{q=2}^{\infty} \sum_{p=-mq}^{mq} \frac{2}{q^n} = \sum_{q=2}^{\infty} (2mq + 1) \frac{2}{q^n} $$
I cannot understand how the jump is being made. Would appreciate any help.
I'm reading through Oxtoby's proof of the Lebesgue measure of Liouville numbers being 0.
Please see if you understand this: $\sum_{q=2}^{\infty} \sum_{p=-mq}^{mq} \frac{2}{q^n} = \sum_{q=2}^{\infty} \frac{2}{q^n} \sum_{p=-mq}^{mq} 1$ while $\sum_{p=-mq}^{mq} 1 = 2mq+1$ just counts the number of integers between $-mq$ and $mq$.