I'm working in the book A Short Course on Operator Semigroups by Engel/Nagel. They say:
1.2 Lemma Let $X$ be a Banach space and let $F$ be a function from a compact set $K \subset \mathbb{R}$ into $\mathcal{L}(X)$. Then the following are equivalent:
(a) $F$ is continuous for the strong operator topology; i.e. the mappings $K \ni t \mapsto F(t)x \in X$ are continuous for every $x \in X$.
(b) $F$ is uniformly bounded on $K$, and the mapings $K \ni t \mapsto F(t)x \in X$ are continuous for all $x$ in some dense subset $D$ of $X$.
My question is: I am familiar with the idea that a family of functions can be uniformly bounded, but how is it possible that a single function, $F$, can be uniformly bounded (cf: part (b) of the blockquote)?
My guess is that because $F$ maps into $\mathcal{L}(X)$, the output of $F$ is a family of functions, and it is this family of functions that is uniformly bounded. OR, maybe it means that for each $x \in X$, the family orbit maps $F(t)x$ are uniformly bounded for $t \in K$. But I am not sure. Thanks so much!
Just look at the first lines of the proof.