Let R be asymmetric.
So we have:
- Assumption: (x,y)∈R⟹(y,x)∉R
We need to show R is antisymmetric, i.e.
- (x,y)∈R∧(y,x)∈R⟹x=y
Since 2 is a conditional, we can assume
- Assumption:(x,y)∈R∧(y,x)∈R
And try to show
- x=y.
But if we simplify LHS of 3 and use Modus Ponens on (x,y)∈R and 1, our assumption, we have
- (y,x)∉R
Which contradicts RHS of 3.
So how could an asymmetric relation be antisymmetric? Did I do something wrong here?
It's vacuously true! The point is that $(x,y) \in R$ and $(y,x) \in R$ can never happen, so whatever you say about it is true.
For example the statement "If $(x,y) \in R$ and $(y,x) \in R$, then $5=7$" is true.