It may be a silly question. But I don't know it. So I'm questioning. Recently I've got a proof that proves 1=2. 
Is there any fault in the proof? If so then what is the fault??
It may be a silly question. But I don't know it. So I'm questioning. Recently I've got a proof that proves 1=2. 
Is there any fault in the proof? If so then what is the fault??
The problem is here:
$a^2=b^2 \Rightarrow a=b \underbrace{\vee}_{\text{or}} a=-b$.
In this case, only the second one counts:
$(1-\frac32)^2=(2-\frac32)^2 \Rightarrow \require{cancel} \cancel{1-\frac32=2-\frac32} \vee 1-\frac32=-2+\frac32$, but the first one gives a contradiction, so it doesn't count.