I am trying to prove this relation, but I just cant. I know it is true, but I can not prove it, because I dont know how. Can someone give me some pointers.
$(a,b) = (c,d) \land (c,d)=(e,f) \implies (a,b)=(e,f)$
Thanks???
EDIT:
This is the part of bigger assingment that I am doing. You can find more here Proving that $(a_1, b_1)\sim(a_2, b_2)\Leftrightarrow\ a_1=a_2\land b_1=b_2$
Bassicly I need to prove that the given relation is transitive, and that is what I am trying to do here in this expression, but I just dont know how to do it.
I suppose you actually want to prove the transitivity for $\sim$ instead of the actual referential equality $=$. So you have to show $$(a,b) \sim (c,d) \land (c,d)\sim(e,f) \implies (a,b)\sim(e,f)$$ assuming that $$(\star)\quad(a_1, b_1)\sim(a_2, b_2)\Leftrightarrow\ a_1=a_2\land b_1=b_2$$ (got that from your other question).
Well, $(a,b) \sim (c,d)$ yields $a=c\wedge b=d$, and $(c,d)\sim(e,f)$ implies $c=e\wedge d=f$. Using the transitivity of $=$ which you may safely assume since $=$ is an equivalence relation, you get $a=c \wedge c=e \implies a=e$ and $b=d \wedge d=f \implies b=f$. Using $(\star)$ in the "$\Leftarrow$" direction, you therefore have the desired $(a,b)\sim(e,f)$.