A theorem says:
$\forall x > -1$ and $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}$:
$(1 + x)^n \geq n\cdot x + 1$
Base:
$n = 0$
$(1 + x)^0 \geq 0\cdot x + 1$
$1 \geq 1$ [ok]
Hypothesis:
Suppose $(1 + x)^n \geq n\cdot x + 1$ is true for an arbitrary $n$.
Inductive step:
Let's prove $(1 + x)^{n+1} \geq (n+1)\cdot x + 1$ is also true.
$(1 + x)^{n} \cdot (1 + x) \geq n\cdot x + 1 + x$
I know $(1 + x)^{n}$ is $\geq n\cdot x + 1$, by inductive hypothesis, but I cannot figure out how to simplify the expression above further, it seems I am very close to the solution, but (maybe) I am too stupid without imagination.
You know that $(1+x)^n\ge nx+1$ by the inductive hypothesis. Let's multiply both sides by the positive quantity $1+x$. This will maintain the inequality. We get $$(1+x)^{n+1}\ge (nx+1)(1+x)=nx+1+nx^2+x=(n+1)x+1+nx^2\ge (n+1)x+1$$